Commentary for Bava Kamma 204:20
אלא אמר אביי ה"ק הלוקח שדה בשם חבירו (ריש גלותא)
Shall we say that this differs from the view of the scholars of the West<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. supra p. 594. ');"><sup>33</sup></span> who stated: Who indeed informed the vendor of the wheat so that he may transfer the ownership of the wheat to the owner of the money? — As far as that goes there would be no difficulty, as this could hold good where e.g., the vendee made this known to the owner of the field and also informed the witnesses [who signed the deed] about it. Read, however, the concluding clause: '[But if when buying it he explicitly made] this stipulation<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' To the vendor. ');"><sup>30</sup></span> he cold compel the Exilarch to sell it.'<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., to draw up a new deed in the name of the actual purchaser. ');"><sup>29</sup></span> But why should it be so? Why should the Exilarch not be entitled to say: 'I want neither your compliments<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In drawing up the deed in my name. ');"><sup>34</sup></span> nor your insults.'<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In making me appear as a dealer in land. ');"><sup>35</sup></span> Abaye therefore said: what was meant was this: If one buys a field in the name of another
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