Commentary for Menachot 147:22

בעי רבינא כהן שאכל מן האימורין מה הוא לאו דזרות

and is brought as an obligation! - Those<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The points of resemblance between the freewill meal-offering and the High Priest's meal-offering.');">³³</span> are more In number. To what purpose do the Rabbis apply the verse And every meal-offering of the priest shall be wholly burnt; it shall not be eaten?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Since the Rabbis differ from R. Simeon and say that every meal-offering of a priest is to be wholly burnt without the handful being taken therefrom, to them the expression 'it shall not be eaten' is redundant in this verse.');">³⁴</span> They require it for the following teaching: I only know that the former<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., the passage dealing with the High Priest's meal-offering where it stated (Lev. VI, 15) 'It shall be wholly burnt', using the expression khkf ; on the other hand, no express prohibition is stated against eating it.');">³⁵</span> must be wholly burnt, and the latter<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' l.e., the verse dealing with the priest's meal-offering (ibid. 16) , where it is expressly stated 'It shall not be eaten'; on the other hand, in this khkf verse Scripture does not expressly say 'It shall be wholly burnt'; it only states 'It shall be whole',');">³⁶</span> shall not be eaten, whence do I know to apply what is stated of the one to the other and vice versa? The text therefore stated the word 'kalil' in each case for the purposes of analogy. I says in the former passage 'kalil' and in the latter also 'kalil', as in the former it means wholly burnt, so In the latter it means wholly burnt. And as in the latter passage the eating thereof is expressly forbidden by a prohibition, so in the former the eating is forbidden by a prohibition. Rabina raised this question, What is the law if a priest ate of the sacrificial portions of an offering? As regards the prohibition concerning non-priests

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