Commentary for Nedarim 91:8

הכי נמי מסתברא דקתני סיפא וכופין את הנודר למכור את חלקו אי אמרת בשלמא דנדר הוא היינו דקתני כופין אלא אי אמרת דאדריה אמאי כופין אותו הא מינס אניס

This is logical too, for the second clause states: NOW, HE WHO THUS VOWED IS FORCED TO SELL HIS SHARE OF THE COURT. Now, this is reasonable if the vow was self-imposed: hence he is compelled. But if you say that a vow was imposed against him, why is he compelled. Seeing that the position is not of his making?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lit., 'surely he is under constraint'. I.e., it is equitable to force him to sell, if as a result of his own vow he may come to transgression, but not otherwise. ');">⁷</span>

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