Commentary for Niddah 119:34
אמר רב חסדא
Why was it necessary to state the 'hence' of R. Simeon b. Gamaliel?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Sc. in view of his specific statement that the stain may be attributed to the other woman who was already in a state of uncleanness, is it not obvious that the former is at an advantage while the latter is at a disadvantage? ');"><sup>31</sup></span>
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