Commentary for Niddah 56:27

כוליה לכדרב הוא דאתא

what need then was there for the specification of 'male and female'? Obviously to deduce the same ruling as Rab did. Might it not then be suggested that the entire text served the same purpose as that to which Rab applied it?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' But, if so, whence is the deduction made that the same law applies to all that attain cleanness in a ritual bath? ');">⁴⁴</span> — If that were the case<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' That only Rab's ruling is to be deduced. ');">⁴⁵</span>

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