Liturgy for Pesachim 78:14
תניא רבי יוסי ברבי יהודה אומר קמח שנפל לתוכו דלף אפילו כל היום כולו אינו בא לידי חימוץ אמר רב פפא והוא דעביד טיף להדי טיף
The question arises on the view of R'Jose the Galilean. What then? Is it only with unleavened bread, which is [tithed] by Scriptural law, that he cannot discharge his obligation, but with maror, which is [tithed] by Rabbinical law [only], he discharges his obligation; or perhaps whatever [measure] the Rabbis enacted, they enacted it similar to a Scriptural law?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' So that maror is the same as unleavened bread.');"><sup>18</sup></span>
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