Mesorat%20hashas for Temurah 16:28
לטעום מר מידי
One may not sell a firstling belonging to an Israelite unless the priest be present with him?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' For fear lest if the Israelite learnt from the expert that the blemish was a permanent one and that there was thus no fear of holy things being eaten without the Temple walls, he will eat it and will disregard the fact that he would be robbing the priest of his due. Therefore a priest is required to be present with the Israelite and the latter cannot then say, 'A priest gave me this firstling with its blemish', for we say to him, 'Produce the priest who gave it to you', and so long as he does not do so, we do not allow the use of the firstling. Another explanation (R. Gershom) : If you permit a priest to sell a firstling to an Israelite, the Israelite might detain the firstling among the herd till a blemish occurs to it an he then say: 'A priest has sold me this firstling with its blemish', thus evading his duty to the priest.');"><sup>18</sup></span>
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