Midrash for Rosh Hashanah 7:10
איבעית אימא מנלן דאחמיץ מהכא (עזרא ז, כב) עד כסף ככרין מאה ועד חנטין כורין מאה ועד חמר בתין מאה ועד בתין משח מאה ומלח די לא כתב וגו' מעיקרא בלא קיצותא והשתא בקיצותא
Alternatively I may say that 'shegal' does as a rule mean 'queen', but in this case Rabbah B'Lema had a tradition [that it means 'dog'], and the reason why [in the text] it is called 'shegal' is because it was dear to him<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Artaxerxes.');"><sup>11</sup></span> as a queen; or, possibly, because he put it on the queen's seat.
Sifrei Devarim
"on the festival of matzoth, and on the festival of Shavuoth, and on the festival of Succoth": Because it is written (Ibid. 12:5) "and you shall come there (6) and you shall bring there your sacrifices, etc.," I might think (that if he fails to do so) on the first festival he is in transgression of (Ibid. 23:33) "You shall not delay to pay it"; it is, therefore, written (Bamidbar 29:39) "These shall you offer to the L-rd on your festivals." I might think (that he is in transgression if he does not offer them on the first) two festivals; it is, therefore, written "on the festival of matzoth, and on the festival of Shavuoth, and on the festival of Succoth." We are hereby taught that he is not in transgression until all the festivals of the year have passed. R. Shimon says: Three festivals in order, and Succoth last. R. Elazar b. Shimon says: It need not be written "the festival of Succoth," for that is the subject of the verse. Why is it written? To indicate that it (i.e., passing it) is the cause (of the transgression).
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