Quoting%20commentary for Pesachim 42:11

אלא לרבי יהודה דאמר לדברים ככתבן הוא דאתא הא כל איסורים שבתורה מנא ליה דאסורין בהנאה נפקא ליה (שמות כב, ל) מלכלב תשליכון אותו

R'Judah said: The words are as they are written, [viz.] to a ger it must be given and to a heathen it must be sold. What is R'Judah's reason? If you should think as R'Meir says,let the Divine Law write, thou mayest give it unto the stranger [ger] that is within thy gates, that he may eat it, and thou mayest sell it: why state 'or'? Infer from this that the words are as they are written. And R'Meir?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' How does he answer this?');">¹⁸</span> - 'Or' is to show that giving to a ger takes precedence over selling to a heathen. And R'Judah? - No verse is required for this: since you are commanded to maintain a ger, but you are not commanded to maintain a heathen,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In a technical sense only: nevertheless Judaism teaches that the poor among heathens must be helped just as the Jewish poor, v. Git. 61a.');">¹⁹</span> a verse is not required, [for] it stands to reason. On the view of R'Meir who maintained,[to] a ger and a heathen alike, both selling and giving are permitted, it is well: since a verse is required to permit benefit from a nebelah, it follows that all other thi forbidden in the Torah are forbidden in respect of both eating and [general] benefit. But according to R'Judah, who maintained, it comes from [the purpose of teaching that] the words are as they are written, whence does he know that all [other] things forbidden in the Torah are forbidden in respect of benefit? He deduces it from, [ye shall not eat any flesh that is torn of beasts in the field;] ye shall cast it to the dogs:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ex. XXII, 30.');">²⁰</span>

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