ה איבעי' להו מהו לפדות בבן פקועה אליבא דר' מאיר לא תיבעי לך דכיון דאר"מ בן פקועה טעון שחיטה שה מעליא הוא אלא כי תבעי לך אליבא דרבנן דאמרי שחיטת אמו מטהרתו
5 [Now you might assume that] just as the Paschal-offering must be a male, without a blemish, and a year old, similarly here, [in connection with the redemption of the first-birth of an ass] it must be a male, without a blemish, and a year old. The text therefore states: 'Thou shalt redeem', [and repeats], 'Thou shalt redeem' to include [even other than a male etc.]. Now if the repetition: 'Thou shalt redeem', 'Thou shalt redeem', has for its purpose to include, then why not include also all those [animals named in the Mishnah, as being unsuitable to redeem]? - If this were so, what is the use of [the analogy above between the words], 'lamb', 'lamb'? The question was raised: What is the ruling as regards redeeming a first-birth with a ben peku'ah?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' An animal taken alive out of the slaughtered mother's womb.');"><sup>7</sup></span> According to the opinion of R'Meir, there is no need for you to ask, for since R'Meir said: 'A ben peku'ah requires ritual slaughter', it is perfect lamb. But the question does arise according to the opinion of the Rabbis, who hold that its mother's slaughtering makes it permitted to be eaten [without slaughtering] 'so that it is like flesh in the pot.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' It is on a par with a ritually slaughtered animal, and, like the latter, we are not permitted to redeem with it a first-birth of an ass.');"><sup>8</sup></span>