ה אי זכר יכול אפי' יצתה נקבה לפניו תלמוד לומר (שמות יג, יב) פטר רחם אי פטר רחם יכול אפילו יצא אחר יוצא דופן ת"ל בכור
5 Hence Scripture expressly states: The firstling.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ex. XIII, 2. Here we have an illustration of a specification requiring a general proposition to define it.');"><sup>7</sup></span> Said R'Sherabya to Abaye: In the first part [of the above passage],<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' He calls here the middle part of the above passage commencing 'From the word males" etc.',="" the="" first="" part.');"=""><sup>8</sup></span> why does not the Talmud bring the text 'The firstling'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' If the law of the firstling only applied to an animal which is a firstling in every particular, why does not the Talmud, instead of saying 'I might infer that even if a female came before' etc., simply refer to the word 'firstling, in the text as excluding this assumption, since a genuine firstling must be such in all respects? Hence we may deduce that the scriptural firstling can be an animal which is so only in one respect.');"><sup>9</sup></span> From this we see that a firstling in only one respect is the firstling [of the Scripture]. And in the last part [of t above passage],<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' It says 'one might infer that the animal which came after one extracted through the cesarean section, etc., from which we may conclude that the firstling in only one respect is not a genuine firstling. Thus there is a clear contradiction in the above passage.');"><sup>10</sup></span> the Talmud brings the text 'firstling'.