Bekhorot 93

Chapter 93

א יכיר לחוד והכרת פנים לחוד
1 [The phrase] 'But he shall acknowledge' is one thing<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Since it does not mention 'Countenance' () therefore even the coming forth of the forehead is an identification of birth for purposes of inheritance. ohbp');"><sup>1</sup></span>
ב איתמר היו לו בנים בהיותו עובד כוכבים ונתגייר רבי יוחנן אומר אין לו בכור לנחלה ור"ש בן לקיש אומר יש לו בכור לנחלה רבי יוחנן אומר אין לו בכור לנחלה דהא הוה ליה ראשית אונו ור"ש בן לקיש אומר יש לו בכור לנחלה גר שנתגייר כקטן שנולד דמי
2 and the phrase 'The show of their countenance' is another.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Since Scripture adds here 'countenance' this shows that the full face is required in the case of identification.');"><sup>2</sup></span> It has been stated: If he had children while he was a heathen and he became a proselyte, R'Johanan says: He cannot have a first-born [with the privileges of] inheritance, whereas R'Simeon B'Lakish says: He can have a first-born with respect to inheritance. R'Johanan holds that he cannot have a first-born with respect to inheritance, for he already had 'the beginning of his strength', whereas R'Simeon B'Lakish says that he can have a first-born [now] with the privilege of inheritance, because a stranger who became a proselyte is like a newly-born child. And they both follow their own line of reasoning elsewhere. For it has been stated: If he had children while he was a heathen and he became a proselyte, R'Johanan says: He has already fulfilled the command of propagation,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Cf. Gen. I, 28. And they need not remarry.');"><sup>3</sup></span> whereas R'Simeon B'Lakish says: He has not fulfilled the command.
ג ואזדו לטעמייהו דאיתמר היו לו בנים בהיותו עובד כוכבים ונתגייר ר' יוחנן אמר קיים פריה ורביה ור"ש בן לקיש אמר לא קיים ר' יוחנן אמר קיים (ישעיהו מה, יח) לא תוהו בראה לשבת יצרה ור"ש בן לקיש אמר לא קיים פריה ורביה גר שנתגייר כקטן שנולד דמי
3 R'Johanan says: He has fulfilled [the command]: Since it is written, He [God] hath created it not in vain, He formed it to be inhabited,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Isa. XLV, 18. And this he has carried out through the children he has already had.');"><sup>4</sup></span> whereas R'Simeon B'Lakish says: He has not fulfilled the command of propagation, for a stranger who became a proselyte is like a newly-born child. And it is necessary [to state both these instances where R'Johanan and R'Simeon differ]. For if [the difference of opinion between them] had been stated only in the first case,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' That of inheritance.');"><sup>5</sup></span> we might have said that only there does R'Simeon B'Lakish hold that he can have a first-born as regards inheritance because heathens are not legal heirs,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' For heathens are not legal inheritors of their fathers' estates after becoming proselytes (Rashi) . Tosaf. explains that a heathen can also inherit his father's estate according to biblical law (v. Kid. 17b) and that the Gemara here means that a heathen does not come under the law of the first-born.');"><sup>6</sup></span> but here we might have thought that he agrees with R'Johanan that [we apply] 'He hath created it not in vain, he formed it to inhabit it', for he has helped to people the earth [by the children he h previously]. And if [the difference of opinion between them] had been stated only in the second case,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Where a gentile has children and he becomes a proselyte.');"><sup>7</sup></span>
ד וצריכא דאי איתמר בהא קמייתא בהא קאמר רשב"ל משום דבהיותו עובד כוכבים לאו בני נחלה נינהו אבל בהא אימא מודה ליה לרבי יוחנן דלא תוהו בראה לשבת יצרה והא עבד ליה שבת
4 we might have said that only in that case does R'Johanan hold this opinion, but with reference to the first case [of inheritance] we might have thought that he agreed with R'Simeon B'Lakish.
ה ואי איתמר בהא בהא קאמר רבי יוחנן אבל בהא אימא מודה ליה לר"ש בן לקיש צריכא
5 It was therefore necessary [to mention that they differ in both instances].
ו תנן מי שלא היו לו בנים ונשא אשה שכבר ילדה עודה שפחה ונשתחררה עודה עובדת כוכבים ונתגיירה ומשבאתה לישראל ילדה ולדה בכור לנחלה ואינו בכור לכהן
6 We have learnt: IF ONE WHO NEVER HAD CHILDREN BEFORE, MARRIED A WOMAN WHO HAD ALREADY GIVEN BIRTH PRE VIOUSLY OR ONE WHO HAD GIVEN BIRTH WHEN SHE WAS A BONDWOMAN BUT IS NOW FREED, OR ONE WHO GAVE BIRTH WHEN SHE WAS A HEATHEN AND HAS SINCE BECOME A PROSELYTE, AND IF WHEN SHE CAME TO THE ISRAELITE SHE BORE A FIRST-BORN THE INFANT IS CONSIDERED A FIRST-BORN [WITH RESPECT] TO INHERITANCE BUT NOT A FIRST-BORN TO BE REDEEMED FROM A PRIEST. Now from whom did she give birth?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' For the Mishnah says that if she gave birth when she came to the Israelite, the infant was a first-born as regards inheritance.');"><sup>8</sup></span>
ז ילדה ממאן אילימא מישראל שלא היו לו בנים מאי איריא גיורת ושפחה אפילו בת ישראל נמי
7 Shall I say from an Israelite who had no children? Why then should [the Mishnah] mention a proselyte and a bondwoman,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Implying that the reason why the offspring was a first-born for inheritance was because the children born when she was a gentile were of no account legally.');"><sup>9</sup></span> since this would be the case even with a daughter of Israel?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Where the children born previously are considered genuine children. The infant born now would still be a first-born of inheritance because in the case of inheritance the matter depends on the father, and not on the mother, and as far as he is concerned this infant is his first-born, 'the beginning of his strength'.');"><sup>10</sup></span>
ח אלא לאו מגר שהיו לו בנים ונתגייר וקתני בכור לנחלה
8 Then<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The expression AND WHEN SHE CAME TO THE ISRAELITE SHE BORE A FIRST-BORN does not then refer to an Israelite who had no children, but is a separate statement meaning that if a heathen woman had had children and then together with her husband became a proselyte and gave birth to an infant after having come under the influence of Jewish law, it is regarded as a first-born for inheritance.');"><sup>11</sup></span> you must say that she gave birth from a stranger who had children and became a proselyte; and yet it says: THE INFANT IS A FIRST-BORN [WITH RESPECT] TO INHERITANCE, [which confutes R'Johanan's opinion]! - No. I may still say that [the Mishnah] means that she gave birth from an Israelite who had no children,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And there is, as you say, no need for the Mishnah to mention particularly the case of a proselyte as regards inheritance. But it wishes to teach us that the infant is not a first-born to be released from redemption, thus informing us that the previous children are considered as having opened the womb.');"><sup>12</sup></span>
ט לא לעולם מישראל שלא היו לו בנים ואינו בכור לכהן איצטריכא ליה
9 and it has to inform us that the infant is not a first-born to be released by redemption, to exclude the ruling of R'Jose the Galilean who said: THE INFANT IS BOTH A FIRST-BORN WITH RESPECT TO INHERITANCE AND ALSO ONE WHO MUST BE REDEEMED FROM A PRIEST, BECAUSE IT IS SAID IN THE SCRIPTURES: OPENETH THE WOMB AMONG THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ex. XIII, 2.');"><sup>13</sup></span> [IMPLYING] UNTIL THE OPENING OF THE WOMB IS OF [THE CHILDREN OF] ISRAEL.
י לאפוקי מדרבי יוסי הגלילי דאמר בכור לנחלה ולכהן שנאמר (שמות יג, יב) פטר רחם בישראל עד שיפטרו רחם מישראל קמ"ל דלא
10 [The Mishnah] therefore informs us that it is not so. Come and hear: If he had children when he was a heathen and he became a proselyte, the infant has the status of a first-born [with respect] to inheritance?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' This is therefore a confutation of R. Johanan's opinion.');"><sup>14</sup></span>
יא ת"ש היו לו בנים בהיותו עובד כוכבים ונתגייר יש לו בכור לנחלה אמר רבינא ואיתימא רב אחא הא ודאי רבי יוסי הגלילי הוא דאמר פטר רחם בישראל עד שיפטרו רחם מישראל ויליף איהו מינה דידה
11 - Said Rabina, or, as some say, R'Aha B'Raba: This<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The Baraitha which states that the child is a first-born for inheritance.');"><sup>15</sup></span> is certainly the opinion of R'Jose the Galilean, who holds: [Scripture says] 'WHOSOEVER OPENETH THE WOMB, UNTIL THE OPENING OF THE WOMB IS OF THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL, and we infer the case of the husband from that of the woman.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' That just as in the case of a woman, the previous children do not count legally and therefore the infant is regarded as a first-born and as opening the womb, so in the case of the husband as regards inheritance, the previous children do not count legally and thus this infant is the first-born for inheritance.');"><sup>16</sup></span> R'Adda B'Ahabah said: If a Levite's daughter gave birth, her son is not subject to the law of redemption [from a priest] with five sela's. Now from whom did she conceive? Shall I say that she conceived from a priest or a Levite?
יב אמר רב אדא בר אהבה לוייה שילדה בנה פטור מה' סלעים דאיעבר ממאן אילימא דאיעבר מכהן ומלוי מאי איריא לוייה אפילו ישראלית נמי
12 Why then mention a Levite's daughter, since this is the case even with an Israelite's daughter?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Supra 3b, where it says that priests and Levites are exempt from redeeming their first-born.');"><sup>17</sup></span> Again you should say that she conceived from an Israelite. But is it not written: After their families, by house of their fathers?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Num. I, 2. Thus we go after the family of the father but not after that of the mother, and as the father is an Israelite, why is she exempt from redeeming her son?');"><sup>18</sup></span> - Said R'Papa: The case here then is where she conceived from a gentile.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Who possesses no legal relationship, and it is therefore more appropriate in this case to go after the mother than after the father who is a gentile. We therefore exempt her son from the law of redemption.');"><sup>19</sup></span> And you should not say that this holds good only for him who maintains that the child<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Of a marriage between a gentile and a Hebrew woman.');"><sup>20</sup></span>
יג אלא דאיעבר מישראל (במדבר א, ב) למשפחותם לבית אבותם כתיב
13 is not rejected [as the child of a gentile];<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' As it is considered legitimate, for we go after the mother, and therefore the son of a Levite's daughter is obviously exempted from the law of redemption. There is a difference of opinion on the subject recorded in Yeb. 45a.');"><sup>21</sup></span>
יד אמר רב פפא דאיעבר מעובד כוכבים ולא תימא אליבא דמאן דאמר אין מזהמין את הולד אלא אפילו למאן דאמר מזהמין את הולד לוי פסול מיקרי
14 but even according to him who holds that the child is rejected, the son of a Levite's daughter is exempted, for it is called an unfit Levite.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' For although we go after the father and the child is not considered legitimate, the son is yet exempt from the law of redemption, for in this matter we go after the mother (R. Gershom) and the child is considered a disqualified Levite.');"><sup>22</sup></span> Mar son of R'Joseph reported in the name of Raba: I may say still [that the Levite's daughter] conceived from an Israelite, and the case is different the [with reference to redemption from a priest], as Scripture says: 'Whatsoever openeth the womb': the Law makes it depend on the opening of the womb.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., on the mother, in the matter of redemption. Tosaf. observes that we accept as binding the opinion of Mar b. Rab Joseph and that therefore the son of a Levite's daughter or of a priestess who is the wife of an Israelite is exempt from the law of redemption.');"><sup>23</sup></span> We have learnt: IF ONE HAD CHILDREN ALREADY AND MARRIED A WOMAN WHO HAD NEVER GIVEN BIRTH PREVIOUSLY, OR IF SHE BECAME A PROSELYTE WHEN PREGNANT OR WAS FREED WHEN PREGNANT AND SHE GAVE BIRTH, OR [IF CONFUSION AROSE BETWEEN] HER AND A PRIESTESS, BETWEEN HER AND A LEVITE'S DAUGHTER, BETWEEN HER AND A WOMAN WHO HAD ALREADY GIVEN BIRTH; AND LIKEWISE IF A WOMAN WHO DID NOT WAIT THREE MONTHS AFTER HER HUSBAND'S DEATH MARRIED AND GAVE BIRTH AND IT IS NOT KNOWN IF THE INFANT WAS BORN IN THE NINTH MONTH AFTER THE DEATH OF THE FIRST HUSBAND OR IN THE SEVENTH MONTH SINCE SHE MARRIED THE SECOND, THE CHILD IS A FIRST-BORN TO BE REDEEMED BY A PRIEST BUT NOT A FIRST-BORN [WITH RESPECT] TO INHERITANCE. We infer from this that the priestess and the Levite's daughter are not subject to the law of redemption.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' For the Mishnah informs us of a new point that although there had been a mixing of the two children and one is subject to redemption and the other exempt, it is the parent whose child is subject to redemption who must give the priest the redemption money and not the priestess or Levite's daughter. The questioner is for the present under the impression that the 'priestess' of the Mishnah means the daughter of a priest.');"><sup>24</sup></span> Now from whom did she conceive?
טו מר בריה דרב יוסף אמר משמיה דרבא לעולם דאיעבר מישראל ושאני התם דאמר קרא פטר רחם בפטר רחם תלא רחמנא
15 Shall I say that she conceived from a priest or a Levite? Why mention [in the Mishnah] the cases of a priestess and a Levite's daughter, since the case is the same with a daughter of an Israelite?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' For since the father is a priest or a Levite, her son is exempt from redemption, even if she be an Israelite's daughter.');"><sup>25</sup></span> Again you should say that she conceived from a gentile.
טז תנן מי שהיו לו בנים ונשא אשה שלא ילדה נתגיירה מעוברת נשתחררה מעוברת
16 But is a priestess [in such circumstances] exempt [from redeeming her son]? Has not R'Papa said: Raba examined us [in laws] as follows: 'If a priestess conceived from a gentile, what is the ruling'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Is her son exempt from redemption or not?');"><sup>26</sup></span> And I answered him: 'Is this not analogous to the ruling of R'Adda B'Ahaba Who said: If a Levite's daughter gave birth, her son is not subject to the law of redemption with five sela's'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And just as a Levite's daughter is exempt from redeeming her son, similarly a priestess is also exempt.');"><sup>27</sup></span>
יז וילדה היא וכהנת היא ולויה היא ואשה שכבר ילדה וכן מי שלא שהתה אחרי בעלה ג' חדשים ונשאת וילדה ואין ידוע אם בן ט' לראשון אם בן ז' לאחרון בכור לכהן ואינו בכור לנחלה
17 And he said to me: But is the analogy correct? This is no difficulty as regards the case of Levite's daughter, for she retains her sacred status.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Although she had intercourse with a gentile. And therefore when we 'cast' her son after her, he is like an unfit Levite who is exempt from redemption.');"><sup>28</sup></span>
יח מכלל דכהונה ולויה פטורין דאיעבר ממאן אילימא דאיעבר מכהן ולוי אי הכי מאי איריא כהנת ולויה אפי' בת ישראל נמי
18 For it has been taught: If a Levite's daughter was made a captive or if she had intercourse of a licentious character, we nevertheless give her of the tithe<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Referring to the first tithe, which is eaten by the Levites.');"><sup>29</sup></span> and she may eat.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Yeb. 91a.');"><sup>30</sup></span> But in the case of a priestess, as soon as she has intercourse with a gentile, she becomes a 'stranger'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Scripture says: And the priest's daughter be married to a stranger, (Lev. XXII, 12) from which we infer (Yeb. 68a) that as soon as she has intercourse with one unfit to marry her, she becomes disqualified from consecrated objects. But a Levite's daughter in similar circumstances is only debarred from marrying a priest and eating terumah (v. Glos.) , but she retains her status of belonging to the Levite community. And since the priestess here is regarded as a 'stranger', her son is subject to the law of redemption, like an Israelite. Consequently one cannot explain that the Mishnah refers to a case where she conceived from a gentile.');"><sup>31</sup></span> This might be right according to Mar son of R'Joseph who said<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Above, in his explanation of the ruling of R. Adda b. Ahabah.');"><sup>32</sup></span>
יט אלא דאיעבר מעובד כוכבים כהנת פטורה והאמר רב פפא בדיק לן רבה כהנת שנתעברה מעובד כוכבים מהו ואמינא ליה לאו היינו דרב אדא בר אהבה דאמר לויה שילדה בנה פטור מחמש סלעים
19 that the Levite's daughter conceived from an Israelite; we can then explain that the Mishnah also refers to a case where the priestess conceived from an Israelite. But according to R'Papa,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Who explained the ruling of R. Adda to refer to a Levite's daughter who conceived from a gentile.');"><sup>33</sup></span> how will you explain the Mishnah? - I may still say that she conceived from a priest, she herself however being a daughter of an Israelite<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And not the daughter of a priest.');"><sup>34</sup></span> and the reason why [the Mishnah] describes her as a priestess is because her son is a priest.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' But a priest's daughter, unless she conceived from a priest, is not exempted from redeeming her first-born, because we do not go after the mother except in the case of a Levite's daughter who conceived from a gentile.');"><sup>35</sup></span>
כ ואמר לי הכי השתא בשלמא לויה בקדושתה קיימא דתניא לויה שנשבית או שנבעלה בעילת זנות נותנין לה מן המעשר ואוכלת
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כא אלא כהנת כיון דאי בעיל לה הויא זרה
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כב הניחא למר בריה דרב יוסף משמיה דרבא דאמר דאיעבר מישראל מוקי לה בדאיעבר מישראל אלא לרב פפא במאי מוקי לה
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כג לעולם דאיעבר מכהן והיא בת ישראל ואמאי קרי לה כהנת דבנה כהן
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