יח אלא מתניתין דקתני מי שחציו עבד וחציו בן חורין בשלמא לרבה מוקים לה בכסף ודברי הכל אלא לרב יוסף לימא רבי היא ולא רבנן אמר רבינא
18 — R. Joseph may reply: [What the Baraitha shows is] that they differ in regard to a deed, and this applies also to money payment; and the reason why their difference is mentioned only in regard to a deed is to show to what lengths Rabbi is prepared to go.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lit., 'to show the strength of Rabbi'. Namely, even to the extent of ignoring the gezerah shawah which points in the other direction. ');"><sup>15</sup></span> But why should not their difference be mentioned with reference to money payment to show to what lengths the Rabbis are prepared to go?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Even to the extent of ignoring the analogy which points in the other direction. ');"><sup>16</sup></span> — It prefers [to note] the strength [of this conviction] where it leads to a permission.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Here, the permission of the slave to emancipate half of himself, whereas the strength of the Rabbis' conviction leads them to prohibit him. ');"><sup>17</sup></span> Come and hear: 'And redeemed': I might take this to mean 'entirely [redeemed]', therefore it says, 'she was not redeemed'. If 'she was not redeemed,' I might think it means 'not at all'? Therefore it says, 'And redeemed'. How then do we explain? She is redeemed and yet not redeemed, with money or with the equivalent of money. I only know so far that this is the case<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' That a slave can be half emancipated. ');"><sup>18</sup></span> with money [payment]; how do know that it is so with a deed? It says, 'And redeemed she was not redeemed, nor was her freedom given to her,' and in another place it says, And he shall write for her a bill of divorcement.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Deut. XXIV, 1. ');"><sup>19</sup></span> Just as there the woman is liberated by a deed, so here. I only know so far that a half-emancipation [can be effected] by money or a full one<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Because there is no half-liberation by a deed for a wife. ');"><sup>20</sup></span> by a deed. How do I know that a half-emancipation [can be effected] by a deed? It says, 'And redeemed she be not redeemed or her freedom be not given to her.' The deed is here put on the same footing as money payment, [whence I conclude that] just as with money either a half or a full emancipation [can be effected], so with a deed. Now there is no difficulty here if we accept the view of R. Joseph after he was refuted:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., after the first half of his statement, that Rabbi dues nut admit half emancipation with a deed, had been refuted, but he had defended the other half, that the Rabbis did not admit it for money. ');"><sup>21</sup></span> this [Baraitha] agrees with Rabbi.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Who also said, according to the revised opinion, that half-emancipation could be effected either with a deed or with money. ');"><sup>22</sup></span> But on the view of Rabbah<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Who said that according tithe Rabbis there is no half-emancipation by deed. ');"><sup>23</sup></span> we must say that the first half<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Which states that money effects half-emancipation. ');"><sup>24</sup></span> agrees with all and the second<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Which states that even a deed effects half-emancipation. ');"><sup>25</sup></span> only with Rabbi?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And not the Rabbis who do not admit half-emancipation by deed. ');"><sup>26</sup></span> — To which Rabbah replies: That is so: the first half agrees with all and the second is according to Rabbi [only]. R. Ashi said: It follows Rabbi [throughout].<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Rabbi holding that the slave obtains half-emancipation in both cases. ');"><sup>27</sup></span> But then, what of the Mishnah, which says, ONE WHO IS HALF A SLAVE AND HALF FREE? This presents no difficulty on the view of Rabbah, because he can suppose it to refer to [one who has been emancipated] by money payment, and it represents the view of all, but on the view of R. Joseph<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' According to whom the Rabbis hold that there is no half-emancipation whether by money or by deed. ');"><sup>28</sup></span> are we to say that it represents the view of Rabbi and not of the Rabbis? — Rabina replied: