Meilah 16
תחלה לקדש ר"מ אומר
is unclean of the first degree in regard to holy things.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' This means, the sacred thing touched by a tebul yom is 'unclean' of the second degree. It can thus transmit the uncleanness two stages further. It 'defiles' other holy things and 'renders unfit' terumah.');"><sup>1</sup></span>
כשם שהוא פוסל משקה תרומה ואוכלי תרומה כך הוא פוסל משקה קדש ואוכלי קדש
The Sages say, Just as he renders "unfit" liquids and edibles of terumah, so he renders "unfit"<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' But not 'unclean' so as to defile other things, as in our MISHNAH:');"><sup>4</sup></span>
לאבא שאול מעלה עשו בקדשים שוינהו רבנן לטבול יום כראשון
And on the view of R'Meir, [he possesses by Rabbinic enactment the same measure of uncleanness] as food which is unclean in the second degree;<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Which renders a holy thing unclean in the third degree.');"><sup>5</sup></span>
לר"מ כאוכל שני לרבנן כיון דטבל קלש טומאה פסול משוי טמא לא משוי
while on the view of the Sages, since he has immersed, his uncleanness has weakened, and he renders things 'unfit' but not 'unclean'.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' According to Raba's explanation our Mishnah may well agree with the views of Abba Saul and R. Meir, for their rulings result from the enactment of the Rabbis, whilst the 'Mishnah refers to the original law of the Torah.');"><sup>6</sup></span>
ואמאי
This implies that the Law of Sacrilege no longer applies though the prohibition still remains.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Its use is still forbidden although the attached penalty does not apply. It is thus considered the property of the Temple. This inference is made from the fact that the term 'permitted' would otherwise have been used in our MISHNAH:');"><sup>7</sup></span>
א"ר חנינא
Is it not now the possession of the priests? - Said R'Hanina, [The Mishnah refers to an offering] which was taken out [of the Temple Court] so that [the flesh] is indeed not fit for consumption<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' But has to be burnt.');"><sup>8</sup></span>
מיצוי חטאת העוף מעכב ותני רב מיצה דמה
of the sin-offering of a bird i not indispensable,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' If omitted or if there is not sufficient blood in the organs of the animal for this act, the sprinkling remains valid in regard to the laws of Sacrilege, piggul, etc. as ruled in our MISHNAH:');"><sup>12</sup></span>
(ויקרא ה, ט) והנשאר בדם ימצה אל יסוד המזבח [חטאת היא] בשלמא לרב אדא בר אהבה היינו דכתיב והנשאר בדם ימצה חטאת היא אלא לרב הונא מאי והנשאר
R'Adda son of Ahabah in the name of Rab said: The draining out of the blood of the sin-offering of a bird is indispensable, and Rab, in fact, learnt [in our Mishnah]: 'When its blood has been drained out'.
אלא מעתה גבי מנחה דכתיב (ויקרא ב, ג) והנותרת הכי נמי שאם ניתותר
But then what of the phrase, 'it is a sin-offering'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Which might suggest that it is the draining out which makes it a valid sin-offering.');"><sup>17</sup></span>
וכי תימא ה"נ
- It refers to the preceding text.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Viz., the sprinkling of the blood, without which the offering is indeed invalid.');"><sup>18</sup></span> Said R'Aha son of Raba to R'Ashi: If so, with the meal-offering where it is written 'and the remainder'<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lev. II, 3.');"><sup>19</sup></span> does it also mean 'if there remained'? And should you say: Indeed, so it is, surely it has been taught: