י אלא לעולם דזריק וכי תניא ההיא בעולה אי בעולה פשיטא דגבוה היא כולה
10 why not say with the thankoffering, too, [that its disqualification becomes effective] with the sprinkling?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Why then should, according to R. Giddal's view, the bread become sacred and thus come under the Law of Sacrilege.');"><sup>11</sup></span> - '[The bread has become] sacred' means indeed only in so far as it has to be burnt by reason of its disqualification.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' But not in regard to the Law of Sacrilege.');"><sup>12</sup></span> May not the following be cited in support [of R'Giddal]:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Viz., of the first part of his statement with reference to the Most Holy sacrifices.');"><sup>13</sup></span> 'The Law of Sacrilege applies to piggul always'. [Does this not imply] even though the blood has been sprinkled. and will then offer a support [of R'Giddal]? - [No, [that is] where the blood has not been sprinkled.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' With disqualifying thought.');"><sup>14</sup></span> But if the blood has not been sprinkled need it be stated? - It deals, in fact, with case where the blood has been sprinkled, but when this has been taught, it was in reference to a burnt-offering.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In which-unlike sin- and guiltofferings-the priests have no share, there then being no flesh rendered permissible by the sprinkling of the blood.');"><sup>15</sup></span> If it refers to a burnt-offering, is it not obvious, since this offering is wholly dedicated t Lord?