Nedarim 29

Chapter 29

א כי לא מזדהיר בתנאה אבל באיסוריה מזדהר

1 a person may be lax with respect to a condition, but he is observant of an actual prohibition.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Thus, where the second day is merely a condition for the first, we fear that even after having slept on the first, he may do so on the second too, hut where the second day is the subject of the actual vow, we do not fear that having slept on the first he will disregard the prohibition of the second. ');">1

ב תנן קונם שאני ישן שאני מהלך שאני מדבר וכו' היכי דמי אילימא כדקתני שאני ישן מי הוי נדרא והתנן חומר בשבועות שהשבועות חלות על דבר שיש בו ממש ועל דבר שאין בו ממש מה שאין כן בנדרים ושינה דבר שאין בו ממש הוא אלא דאמר קונם עיני בשינה

2 We learnt: [IF ONE SAYS,] 'KONAM IF I SLEEP, IF I WALK, IF I SPEAK, etc. How is it meant? If literally, 'if I sleep,' is such a vow valid? But it was taught: There is greater stringency in oaths than in vows, for oaths are valid with respect to things both abstract and concrete, but vows are not so; and sleep is an abstract thing! But if he said, 'Konam be my eyes sleeping,'2

ג ואי דלא יהיב שיעורא מי שבקינן ליה עד דעבר איסור בל יחל והאמר רבי יוחנן שבועה שלא אישן שלשה ימים מלקין אותו וישן לאלתר

3 then, if he states no time-limit, is he permitted to go on until he violates the injunction, he shall not break his word?' But R. Johanan said: [If one says,] 'I swear not to sleep for three days', he is flagellated and may sleep immediately.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Because it is impossible to keep awake three consecutive days. Therefore his oath is inherently vain (v. Shebu. 25a); hence he is punished, and the oath is invalid. ');">3

ד אלא דאמר קונם עיני בשינה למחר אם אישן היום הא אמרת כל באיסוריה מזדהר

4 But if it means that he says, 'Konam be my eyes sleeping tomorrow, if I sleep to-day<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' It cannot mean that he simply said, 'konam be my eyes sleeping to-day', as in that case it is obvious; hence the stipulation must be assumed, and the meaning of the Mishnah will be that he must take heed not to sleep on the first day, lest he sleep on the second too, and thereby violate the injunction, for on any other meaning the Mishnah is superfluous. ');">4

ה אלא פשיטא דאמר קונם עיני בשינה היום אם אישן למחר ואי לא ניים היום כי ניים למחר מאי בל יחל דברו איכא אלא לאו בדניים אלמא איתיה דניים ותיובתא דרב יהודה

5 — surely you say that a person is observant in respect of an actual prohibition?5

ו כי קתני דאי ניים

6 Hence it is obvious that he says, 'Konam be my eyes sleeping to-day, if I sleep tomorrow. Now, if he did not sleep that first day, how can the injunction, he shall not break his word6

ז רבינא אמר לעולם כדקתני ומאי בל יחל מדרבנן

7 apply, even if he slept on the second? Hence it surely means that he did sleep, thus proving that he is permitted to do so. This refutes Rab Judah! When is this stated? If he happened to sleep on the first day.7

ח ומי איכא בל יחל מדרבנן אִין והתניא דברים המותרין ואחרים נהגו בהן איסור אי אתה רשאי להתירן בפניהם שנאמר לא יחל דברו

8 Rabina said: After all, it is as taught,8

ט תנן שאת נהנית לי עד הפסח אם תלכי לבית אביך עד החג הלכה לפני הפסח אסורה בהנאתו עד הפסח

9 yet how can he shall not break his word apply? — By Rabbinical law.9

י הלכה לפני הפסח אסורה לא הלכה לא

10 But can the Biblical injunction apply by Rabbinical law?10

יא אמר רבי אבא הלכה לפני הפסח אסורה ולוקה לא הלכה אסורה בעלמא

11 — Yes. Even as it was taught: Things which are permitted, yet some treat them as forbidden, you must not permit them in their presence, because it is written, he shall not break his word.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' When one is accustomed to treat a thing as forbidden, it is as though it were subject to a vow. Thus, though the prohibitive force of custom is Rabbinical only, the Biblical injunction applies to it. ');">11

יב אימא סיפא אחר הפסח בבל יחל דברו ואי דלא איתהני לפני הפסח מי איכא בל יחל אלא פשיטא דאיתהני אלמא מיתהני

12 We learnt: [If one says to his wife, 'Konam be] that which you benefit from me until Passover, if you go to your father's house until the Festival',12 if she went before Passover, she may not benefit from him until Passover. Now, only if she went before Passover is she forbidden, but not otherwise?13 — R. Abba answered: If she went before Passover, she is forbidden and is flagellated;14 If she did not go, she is merely forbidden. Then consider the second clause: After Passover, she is subject to he shall not break his word. Now if she did not benefit before Passover, how can the injunction apply? Hence it is obvious that she did benefit, which proves that this is permitted,

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