Zevachim 215:1
תיבעי לר' יוחנן ע"כ לא קאמר ר' יוחנן התם אלא עצם דמינא דבשר הוא אבל מלח דלאו מינא דבר יונה הוא לא תיבעי לר"ל ע"כ לא קאמר ר"ל התם אלא דאי פריש מינה לאו מצוה לאסוקי אבל הכא דאי פריש מצוה לאסוקי לא או דלמא ל"ש
Said Raba of Parzakia<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. supra 10b, p. 50, n. 5.');"><sup>1</sup></span>
ר' יוסי הגלילי אומר כו':
You may ask on R'Johanan's view: R'Johanan gives his ruling only there, in respect of the bone, which is related to the flesh,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lit., 'which is of the kind of the flesh'.');"><sup>2</sup></span>
השיב ר"א בר' שמעון תחת ר"י הגלילי מה לשוחט בפנים ומעלה בחוץ שכן קודש מקבלו תאמר בשוחט בחוץ שאין קודש מקבלו
You may ask on the view of Resh Lakish: Resh Lakish gives his ruling only there in respect of the bone, because if it parts from it [the flesh], there is no obligation to take it up [on the altar]; but not here, where if it parts, there is an obligation to it up;<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' If the salt springs off the altar, the piece must be resalted, because it is written, neither shalt thou suffer the salt of the covenant of thy God to be lacking (Lev. II, 13) .');"><sup>3</sup></span>
טמא שאכל בין קודש כו':
R'JOSE THE GALILEAN SAID etc. Rabbi answered on behalf of R'Jose the Galilean: As for one who slaughters within and offers up without, the reason is because it had a time of fitness; will you say [the same] when one slaughters without and offers up without, where it never had a period of fitness?
שפיר קאמרי ליה רבנן לרבי יוסי הגלילי
R'Eleazar son of R'Simeon answered on behalf of R'Jose the Galilean: As for slaughtering within and offering up without, that is because the sanctuary [the alter] receives it;<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' If after being taken out, it is taken in again and offered up on the altar, the altar receives it, and it is not taken down (v. supra 84a) .');"><sup>4</sup></span>
אמר רבא כל היכא דנטמא טומאת הגוף ואחר כך נטמא בשר דכולי עלמא לא פליגי דחייב שכן טומאת הגוף בכרת
will you say [the same] when one slaughters without and offers up without, where the Sanctuary does not receive it?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' If it is offered up on the altar after it was slaughtered without, it must be removed.');"><sup>5</sup></span>
דרבנן סברי אמרינן מיגו ור' יוסי הגלילי סבר לא אמרינן מיגו
- Said Ze'iri: They differ in respect to slaughtering at night.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' According to Rabbi, if one slaughtered a sacrifice within at night and then offered it up, he is not liable, since it never had a period of fitness, for a sacrifice slaughtered at night is unfit. According to R. Eliezer, he is culpable, for if it is laid on the altar, it does not descend.');"><sup>7</sup></span>
ורבי יוסי נהי דמיגו לא אמרינן תיתי טומאת הגוף דחמירא ותחול על טומאת בשר
Rabbah said: They disagree where one received it [the blood] in a non-sacred vessel.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The sacrifice is immediately invalid, so it never had a period of fitness; nevertheless, the altar receives it.');"><sup>8</sup></span>
אמר רב אשי ממאי דטומאת הגוף חמורה דלמא טומאת בשר חמורה שכן אין לה טהרה במקוה:
AN UNCLEAN [PERSON] WHO EATS [OF SACRIFICES], WHETHER UNCLEAN SACRIFICES etc. The Rabbis say well to R'Jose the Galilean? - Said Raba: Where the [priest's] body [first] became unclean, and then the flesh became unclean, none disagree that he is liable, because personal defilement involves kareth.
<big><strong>מתני׳</strong></big> חומר בשחיטה מבעלייה ובעלייה מבשחיטה
They disagree where the flesh [first] became unclean and then the [priest's] body became unclean : the Rabbis hold, We say miggo ['since']; whereas R'Jose the Galilean holds: We do not say miggo.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' A clean person who eats unclean flesh is not liable to a sin-offering; an unclean person who eats clean flesh is liable. Now, in the latter case posited by Raba the flesh was already forbidden on account of its own uncleanness. Nevertheless the Rabbis hold that the interdict of personal uncleanness can fall upon the first and be added to it, because it is more comprehensive, as now not only is that piece forbidden to him, but all other pieces, and so we argue: since (miggo) he is interdicted in respect of other pieces, he is also interdicted through his personal uncleanness in respect of this piece too, though that is forbidden in any case. Consequently he is liable to a sin-offering. R. Jose does not accept this argument of miggo, and holds that since the flesh is already forbidden, his own uncleanness does not count at all, and he is not liable. If, however, he became unclean first, he was already forbidden to eat any flesh on pain of a sin-offering, simply because the flesh became unclean.');"><sup>9</sup></span>
חומר בשחיטה שהשוחט להדיוט חייב והמעלה להדיוט פטור חומר בעלייה שנים שאחזו בסכין ושחטו פטורים אחזו באבר והעלו חייבין
Now according to R'Jose, granted that we do not say miggo, yet let his personal uncleanness, which is graver, come and fall upon the uncleanness of the flesh?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' As an additional interdict. For even if a more comprehensive interdict does not fall upon a less comprehensive one, that is only where both are of equal gravity. Here, however, personal uncleanness is more stringent, since it involves a sin-offering, whereas the uncleanness of the flesh does not.');"><sup>10</sup></span>
ואינו חייב עד שיעלה לראש המזבח ר"ש אומר אפילו העלה על הסלע או על האבן חייב:
Perhaps uncleanness of the flesh is more stringent, since it cannot be purified in a mikweh.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Whereas an unclean priest is cleansed in a mikweh.');"><sup>11</sup></span>
<big><strong>גמ׳</strong></big> מאי שנא המעלה להדיוט דפטור דכתיב (ויקרא יז, ד) לה' בשחיטה נמי הכתיב לה'
<big><b>MISHNAH: </b></big>SLAUGHTERING [WITHOUT] IS MORE STRINGENT THAN OFFERING UP [WITHOUT], AND OFFERING UP [IS MORE STRINGENT] THAN SLAUGHTERING.
שאני התם דאמר קרא (ויקרא יז, ג) איש איש גבי העלאה נמי כתיב איש איש מיבעי ליה לשנים שהעלו באבר חייבין
SLAUGHTERING IS MORE STRINGENT, FOR HE WHO SLAUGHTERS [A SACRIFICE] ON BEHALF OF MAN<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., for lay consumption, not as a sacrifice.');"><sup>12</sup></span>
אי הכי ה"נ מיבעי ליה לשנים שאחזו בסכין ושחטו שחייבין שאני התם דאמר קרא ההוא אחד ולא שנים
IS CULPABLE, WHEREAS HE WHO OFFERS UP TO A MAN IS NOT CULPABLE.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' On account of offering up without, though this constitutes idolatry and he is culpable on that account.');"><sup>13</sup></span>
אי הכי גבי העלאה נמי הא כתיב ההוא מיבעי ליה
OFFERING UP IS MORE STRINGENT: TWO WHO HOLD A KNIFE AND SLAUGHTER [WITHOUT] ARE NOT CULPABLE, [WHEREAS] IF THEY TAKE HOLD OF A LIMB AND OFFER IT UP, THEY ARE CULPABLE. IF ONE OFFERED UP, THEN OFFERED UP AGAIN, THEN OFFERED UP AGAIN,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Each time part of the same animal. He offered them up in ignorance, but between each offering he became aware that it was forbidden, and then forgot.');"><sup>14</sup></span> HE IS CULPABLE IN RESPECT OF EACH [ACT OF] OFFERING UP: THESE ARE THE WORDS OF R'SIMEON. R'JOSE SAID: HE IS LIABLE ONLY TO ONE [SIN-OFFERING]. HE IS LIABLE ONLY WHEN HE OFFERS UP ON THE TOP OF AN ALTAR;<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., he must first build an altar without and then offer up upon it.');"><sup>15</sup></span> R'SIMEON SAID: HE IS LIABLE EVEN IF HE OFFERS UP ON THE TOP OF A ROCK OR A STONE. <big><b>GEMARA: </b></big>Why is offering up to a man [without] different, that it is not culpable? [presumably] because unto the Lord is written!<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lev. XVII, 8f: Whatsoever man . . offereth up a burnt-offering . . and bringeth it not unto the door of the tent of meeting to sacrifice it unto the Lord, even that man shall be cut off from his people. 'Unto the Lord' shews that Scripture speaks of one who is offering to God, not to man, and only then does he incur kareth (or, a sin-offering if he acts in ignorance) .');"><sup>16</sup></span> Then in the case of slaughtering too, surely 'unto the Lord' is written?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid. 3f: What man soever . . killeth all ox . . and hath not brought it unto the door of the tent of meeting, to present it as an offering unto the Lord.');"><sup>17</sup></span> - There it is different, because Scripture saith, 'What man soever'.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Heb. ish ish, lit., a man, a man', The repetition extends the law even to one who slaughters to a human being.');"><sup>18</sup></span> 'What man soever' is written in connection with offering up too? - That is required for teaching that when two men offer up a limb, they are liable. If so, [say that] here too it is required for teaching that if two men hold the knife and slaughter, they are liable? - There it is different, because Scripture saith, that [man]:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid. and that man shall be cut off from among his people.');"><sup>19</sup></span> [this implies,] one, but not two. If so, 'that [man]' written in connection with offering up too? - That is required