Chasidut for Pesachim 191:23
אלא מעתה דכתיב (שמות יב, ט) אל תאכלו ממנו נא ממנו אי אתה אוכל אבל אתה אוכל נא בפסח דורות אמר קרא ועבדת אלא ממנו למה לי לכדרבה א"ר יצחק:
does that too [intimate] that he must not eat thereof, but he does eat of the annual Passover? - Scripture saith, 'Then thou shalt keep [etc.]'. Then what is the purpose of 'thereof'? - Only in this case does apostasy disqualify, but apostasy does not disqualify from terumah.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' This seems quite unintelligible; Rashi deletes the whole passage on other grounds, observing that the answer is in any case pointless. uc Tosaf. in Yeb. 71 s.v. defends the present reading.');"><sup>31</sup></span>
Kedushat Levi
Exodus 9,3. “and to the Children of Israel say as follows: ‘take a he-goat for a sin offering;” this verse concludes with the words: “as well as an ox and a ram as a peace offering to slaughter in the presence of the Lord and a gift offering soaked in oil, for on this day the Lord has appeared to you” (collectively). This verse which sounds as if it was an afterthought, raises the question how this was possible as we have a rule (Pessachim 96) that any animal designated as a sacrificial animal must undergo at least 4 days of examination to determine if it is not blemished in any way. Why did G’d command to take these animals and present them as sacrifices on the same day they had been selected without their having to undergo the four day period during which they would be examined as to the state of their fitness? The fact that this occurred on the same day is evident from the fact that Aaron did not descend from the altar and bless the people until all the animals and the gift offering had been presented (verse 23).
Ask RabbiBookmarkShareCopy