Talmud Bavli
Talmud Bavli

Chasidut for Pesachim 191:25

ופסח דורות נוהג כל שבעה וכו': אמאי קאי אי לימא אפסח פסח כל שבעה מי איכא

Then what is the purpose of 'thereof' [bo]? Only in this case [bo] is the circumcision his males and his slaves indispensable,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The master may not partake of the Passover-offering until the males of his household are circumcised.');"><sup>33</sup></span> but the circumcision of his males and his slaves is not indispensable in the case of terumah. But if so, when it is written, Neither shall ye break a bone thereof,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ex. XII, 46.');"><sup>34</sup></span> does that too [intimate] that he may not break [a bone] thereof, but he may break [a bone] of the annual Passover? -Scripture saith, 'then thou shalt keep [etc.]'. Then what is the purpose of 'thereof'? 'Thereof' [indicates] of a fit [sacrifice], but not of an unfit [one].<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. supra ');"><sup>35</sup></span> But if so, when it is written, Eat not of it half-roast,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid. 9.');"><sup>36</sup></span> [does that too intimate,] of it you may not eat [half-roast], but you may eat half-roast of the annual Passover-offering? -Scripture saith, 'then thou shalt keep etc.' Then what is the purpose of 'of it'? - For the teaching of Rabbah in R'Isaac's name.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Viz., that an uncircumcised person may not eat of tithe; v. Yeb. 74a.');"><sup>37</sup></span> AND WAS EATEN IN HASTE etc. How do we know it? - Because Scripture saith, and ye shall eat it in haste:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid. 11.');"><sup>38</sup></span> 'it' was eaten in haste, but no other was eaten in haste. AND THE ANNUAL PASSOVER-OFFERING IS KEPT THE WHOLE SEVEN [DAYS] etc. To what does this refer? If we say, to the Passover-offering, - is there then a Passover-offering all the seven [days]?

Kedushat Levi

Exodus 9,3. “and to the Children of Israel say as ‎follows: ‘take a he-goat for a sin offering;” this verse concludes ‎with the words: “as well as an ox and a ram as a peace offering ‎to slaughter in the presence of the Lord and a gift offering ‎soaked in oil, for on this day the Lord has appeared to ‎you” (collectively). This verse which sounds as if it was an ‎afterthought, raises the question how this was possible as we ‎have a rule (Pessachim 96) that any animal designated as a ‎sacrificial animal must undergo at least 4 days of examination to ‎determine if it is not blemished in any way. Why did G’d ‎command to take these animals and present them as sacrifices on ‎the same day they had been selected without their having to ‎undergo the four day period during which they would be ‎examined as to the state of their fitness? The fact that this ‎occurred on the same day is evident from the fact that Aaron did ‎not descend from the altar and bless the people until all the ‎animals and the gift offering had been presented (verse 23).‎
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