Commentary for Kiddushin 18:14
ור' יוחנן האי ובעלה מאי עביד ליה ההוא מיבעי ליה זו נקנית בביאה ואין אמה העבריה נקנית בביאה
how is it conceivable? If he [first] betrothed and then cohabited with her, she is a be'ulah;<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., no longer a virgin, whereas stoning is only for a virgin; v. Deut. XXII, 23f.');"><sup>15</sup></span>
Daf Shevui to Kiddushin
R. Nahman b. Yitzchak finds a better solution. The case in the Torah could occur if he betrothed her by deed. Such an act does not need to be accompanied by intercourse for it to be an effective means of betrothal.
Just to track where we are in the argument: we have now successfully explained why R. Yohanan needed another verse to prove that betrothal can be done through intercourse. Without that verse we might have thought that betrothal through intercourse can only be done when first preceded by betrothal through money. Now we know that each means of betrothal can be done independently.
Just to track where we are in the argument: we have now successfully explained why R. Yohanan needed another verse to prove that betrothal can be done through intercourse. Without that verse we might have thought that betrothal through intercourse can only be done when first preceded by betrothal through money. Now we know that each means of betrothal can be done independently.
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Daf Shevui to Kiddushin
R. Yohanan did not use the verse used by Rabbi to prove that intercourse is a means of betrothal. So what does he do with that verse? He uses it to learn that a wife may be betrothed (acquired) through intercourse. But intercourse is not a means to acquire a female slave. The Talmud will now explain why we might have thought that it is.
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