Commentary for Megillah 3:10

ואכתי מיבעי ליה זמנו של זה לא כזמנו של זה א"כ לימא קרא זמנם מאי זמניהם שמעת מינה כולהו

What then is implied by “their times”? A large number of times! But [the expression ‘their’ times’] is still required to indicate that the time of one is not the same as the time of the other? If so, the verse should have just said, “their time”. Why does it say “their times”? So that you may infer from this all of them.

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