Talmud Bavli
Talmud Bavli

Halakhah for Temurah 58:76

הא מני

Because his seed is attributed to him.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Since the harlot is an Israelitish woman, the children are his, i.e., Jewish.');"><sup>49</sup></span> Raba, however, says: In both cases<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Whether the harlot be an Israelitish or heathen woman.');"><sup>50</sup></span> her hire is forbidden for the altar, and a priest who has intercourse with her is punishable [with lashes] for [having intercourse with] a zonah. What is the reason? We infer one from the other:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The case of a heathen harlot from the case of an Israelitish harlot and vice versa.');"><sup>51</sup></span> Just as in the case of an Israelitish harlot there is a negative command,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' 'Neither shall he profane etc.'');"><sup>52</sup></span> similarly there is a negative command in connection with a heathen harlot. And just as the hire of a heathen harlot is forbidden [for the altar], similarly the hire of an Israelitish harlot is also forbidden [for the altar]. An objection was raised: The hire of either a heathen harlot or an Israelitish harlot is forbidden [for the altar]. Shall we say that this refutes Abaye?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Who holds that the hire of an Israelitish harlot is permissible for the altar.');"><sup>53</sup></span> - Abaye can answer you: This<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The Baraitha just quoted.');"><sup>54</sup></span> will represent the view of R'Akiba who holds that betrothal takes no effect in relationships involving the infringement of a negative command.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And since there is the negative command: 'Neither shall he profane' in connection with an Israelitish harlot, her hire is forbidden.');"><sup>55</sup></span> [But<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The bracketed passage is inserted passage is inserted with Bah.');"><sup>56</sup></span> does not the Baraitha say in a later clause, as e.g. , a widow for a High Priest and a divorcee or one who has performed halizah for a common priest, her hire is forbidden? ]<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And these examples are presumably adduced as instances where the betrothal takes effect and yet the hire is forbidden though the relationships involve no infringement of a negative command!');"><sup>57</sup></span> This is what [the Baraitha] informs us, that [in the case of any harlot with whom betrothal takes no effect] as is the case with a widow [for a High Priest], the hire is forbidden.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The text in the Gemara is in disorder. V. Commentaries.');"><sup>58</sup></span> And according to Raba, why does [the Baraitha] say: 'As e.g. , the case of a widow for a High Priest'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Since according to him every harlot's hire is forbidden. Why therefore specifically mention the case of a widow for a High Priest?');"><sup>59</sup></span> - [The Baraitha means:] It is like the case of a widow [for a High Priest]: Just as a widow for a High Priest is not punishable with lashes until she is warned, similarly with a harlot there is no prohibition until he said to her: 'Here is [the hire]',<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' According to Raba, however, the first intercourse does not make her into a zonah, and consequently unless he tells her 'this is your hire', what he gives her is considered a mere gift.');"><sup>60</sup></span> thus excluding the teaching of R'Eleazar. For R'Eleazar said: If an unmarried man had intercourse with an unmarried woman without the intention thereby of making her his wife, he makes her a harlot. Where, however, she is already a harlot, even if he gave her a lamb [without giving the reason, Raba also agrees that] it is forbidden for the altar. Another version: [The Baraitha] above refers to forbidden relations, where betrothals take no effect.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And therefore even the hire of an Israelitish harlot is forbidden.');"><sup>61</sup></span> But does not the latter clause say: As e.g. , a widow for a High Priest, a divorcee or one who has performed halizah for a common priest, her hire is forbidden? Now in these cases betrothals take effect!<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And yet the hire is forbidden.');"><sup>62</sup></span> - [The Baraitha] will represent the opinion of

Sefer HaChinukh

From the laws of the commandment is that which they, may their memory be blessed, said (Niddah 32a) that a woman becomes impure as a menstruant even on the day of her birth; whereas the law is not like this with a zavah - as a woman does not become impure with a discharge until ten days [of age]. And this thing is by way of the heard tradition. And all women are included in this prohibition, and even Canaanite (gentile) maidservants - since they are included in the commandments, they are like Israelitesses for this matter (Sifra, Metzora Parashat Zavim, Section 5:1). But the women of the [other] nations of the world are not included in the prohibition of menstruation and discharge from Torah writ, but rather [only] rabbinically. As they decreed about them - whether males or whether females - that they be like a zav for all their matters (Niddah 34a). And that which they said in the Gemara (Avodah Zarah 36b) that one who has intercourse with a gentile woman is liable because of her on account of nashgaz (the acrostic of the four prohibitions about to be named) - the explanation of which is a menstruant, a maidservant, a gentile woman and an unfaithful woman (zonah). And this liability is only rabbinic for an Israelite. But for a man who is a priest, he is liable because of her from Torah writ on account of an unfaithful woman (Temurah 29b); and he is lashed because of her.
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