Quoting%20commentary for Menachot 122:12
או אינו אלא זה כהן המקריב כשהוא אומר (ויקרא ז, ל) ידיו תביאנה הרי בעלים אמור הא כיצד כהן מניח ידיו תחת ידי הבעלים ומניף
To teach that the children of Israel may perform the waving but not gentiles;<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Personally; the priest, however, waves it on their behalf.');"><sup>12</sup></span> the children of Israel may perform the waving but not women.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. Dik. Sof. for a variant text that is inserted here. V. also Sh. Mek. n. 2.');"><sup>13</sup></span> Another [Baraitha] taught: It is written, The children of Israel. I know from this that the children of Isra [perform the waving]; whence do I know to include also proselytes and freed slaves? The text therefore states, He that offereth.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lev. VII, 29, stated with reference to the rite of waving.');"><sup>14</sup></span> Perhaps 'he that offereth' refers only to the priest! But since the verse states subsequently, His own hands shall bring the offerings,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid. 30.');"><sup>15</sup></span> the owners are already indicated. How is it then to be explained?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The latter verse speaks of the owner himself performing the waving, whereas the previous verse, it has been suggested, refers to the rite as being performed by the priest. How are these verses to be reconciled?');"><sup>16</sup></span> The priest places his hand under the hands of the owner and waves.
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