Talmud Bavli
Talmud Bavli

Menachot 122

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1

מה כאן כהן אף להלן כהן ומה להלן בעלים אף כאן בעלים הא כיצד כהן מניח ידו תחת ידי בעלים ומניף

Just as here the priest [is stated], so there too the priest [is meant]; and just as there the owner [is referre so here too the owner [is required]. How is it to be done?

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2

ולימא נמי כדברי ר' יהודה דתניא רבי יהודה אומר (דברים כו, י) והנחתו זו תנופה אתה אומר זו תנופה או אינו אלא הנחה

The priest places his hand under the hands of the owner and waves. And why does not [the Mishnah] say, 'The firstfruits also according to R'Judah'?

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3

כשהוא אומר והניחו הרי הנחה אמור הא מה אני מקיים והנחתו זו תנופה

For it was taught: R'Judah says, And thou shalt set it down:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Deut. XXVI, 10.');"><sup>1</sup></span> this refers to the rite of waving.

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4

אמר רבא הואיל ופתח בו הכתוב תחלה רב נחמן בר יצחק אמר הואיל ורב גבריה

You say that it refers to the wavin but perhaps it means literally 'setting it down!' As it has already said, And set it down, setting down [in the literal sense] has already been indicated. What then is the meaning of, 'And thou shalt set it down'?

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5

ואימורי שלמי יחיד וחזה ושוק שלהן אחד האנשים ואחד הנשים בישראל אבל לא באחרים מאי קאמר

It can only refer to the waving! - Raba answered, It is only because his<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Sc. R. Eliezer b. Jacob's.');"><sup>2</sup></span> verse is stated earlier in the chapter.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Since R. Eliezer b. Jacob based his exposition on Deut. XXVI, 4, and R. Judah on v. 10, the Tanna of the Mishnah therefore only quoted R. Eliezer b. Jacob.');"><sup>3</sup></span>

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6

אמר רב יהודה הכי קאמר אחד אנשים ואחד נשים קרבנן טעון תנופה ותנופה עצמה בישראל אבל לא בידי נשים

R'Nahman B'Isaac answered, It is because his<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Sc. R. Eliezer b. Jacob's.');"><sup>2</sup></span> knowledge was exceptional.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lit., 'his strength was great'. Cf. 'Er. 62b.');"><sup>4</sup></span>

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7

תנו רבנן בני ישראל מניפין ואין העובדי כוכבים מניפין בני ישראל מניפין ואין הנשים מניפות

THE SACRIFICIAL PORTIONS OF AN INDIVIDUAL'S PEACE-OFFERINGS AND THE BREAST AND THE THIGH THEREOF, WHETHER THEY ARE THE OFFERINGS OF MEN OR OF WOMEN, BY ISRAELITES BUT NOT BY OTHERS. What does this mean?

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8

א"ר יוסי מצינו שחלק הכתוב בין קרבן ישראל לקרבן עובדי כוכבים לקרבן נשים בסמיכה יכול נחלוק בתנופה

Said Rab Judah: It means this: WHETHER THEY ARE THE OFFERINGS OF MEN OR OF WOMEN these offerings require waving, but the rite of waving shall be performed by Israelites and not by women.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' A woman's peace-offering was waved by the priest on her behalf.');"><sup>5</sup></span> Our Rabbis taught: The children of Israel may perform the rite of waving but not gentiles; the children of Israel may perform the rite of waving but not women.

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9

לא מה לי חלק בסמיכה שהסמיכה בבעלים

R'Jose said, Since we find that Scripture has distinguished between the offering of an Israelite and the offering of a gentile or of a woman with regard to the laying on of hands,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' For the offering of a woman or a gentile does not require the laying on of the hands, not even by proxy.');"><sup>6</sup></span> should we not also make this distinction with regard to the rite of waving?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' That the offering of women or of gentiles shall not be waved at all, not even by a priest on their behalf.');"><sup>7</sup></span>

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10

נחלוק בתנופה שהתנופה בכהנים אם כן מה תלמוד לומר בני ישראל בני ישראל מניפין ואין העובדי כוכבים מניפין בני ישראל מניפין ואין הנשים מניפות

No; for whereas there is good reason to make such a distinction with regard to the laying on of hands, by virtue of the fact that the laying on of hands must be performed by the owner of the offering,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Personally and not by proxy; hence the rite of laying on the hands cannot apply to the offerings of women and gentiles as it is not proper for them to enter the Sanctuary for this purpose.');"><sup>8</sup></span> is there any reason to make such a distinction with regard to the rite of waving, seeing that the priests [also] perform the waving?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' So that in the case of women and gentiles the priest may act on their behalf.');"><sup>9</sup></span>

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11

תניא אידך בני ישראל אין לי אלא בני ישראל גרים ועבדים משוחררין מנין תלמוד לומר המקריב

Why then<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Seeing that as a result of the foregoing argument the offerings of women and gentiles require waving by the priest on their behalf.');"><sup>10</sup></span> does the text expressly state 'the children of Israel'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lev. VII, 29, stated with reference to the rite of waving.');"><sup>11</sup></span>

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12

או אינו אלא זה כהן המקריב כשהוא אומר (ויקרא ז, ל) ידיו תביאנה הרי בעלים אמור הא כיצד כהן מניח ידיו תחת ידי הבעלים ומניף

To teach that the children of Israel may perform the waving but not gentiles;<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Personally; the priest, however, waves it on their behalf.');"><sup>12</sup></span> the children of Israel may perform the waving but not women.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. Dik. Sof. for a variant text that is inserted here. V. also Sh. Mek. n. 2.');"><sup>13</sup></span> Another [Baraitha] taught: It is written, The children of Israel. I know from this that the children of Isra [perform the waving]; whence do I know to include also proselytes and freed slaves? The text therefore states, He that offereth.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lev. VII, 29, stated with reference to the rite of waving.');"><sup>14</sup></span> Perhaps 'he that offereth' refers only to the priest! But since the verse states subsequently, His own hands shall bring the offerings,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid. 30.');"><sup>15</sup></span> the owners are already indicated. How is it then to be explained?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The latter verse speaks of the owner himself performing the waving, whereas the previous verse, it has been suggested, refers to the rite as being performed by the priest. How are these verses to be reconciled?');"><sup>16</sup></span> The priest places his hand under the hands of the owner and waves.

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