Reference for Niddah 118:29

ור' יוחנן אמר

where only one doubt is involved?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Apparently not. For if the woman is unclean in the case of a double doubt it is obvious that she is unclean in the case of one doubt. Why then was R. Meir's ruling given in the first clause, from which the second cannot be derived, instead of in the second clause from which the first would be self-evident? ');">²⁶</span>

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