Reference for Niddah 6:3

להאיך לישנא איכא למרמינהו להני לישני ליכא למרמי

while according to the latter explanations such an incongruity does not exist. But what practical difference is there [in the case of the latter] between the one and the other explanation? — According to Abaye<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Supra 3a ad fin. ');">²</span>

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