Reference for Shevuot 70:21
ות"ק סבר שונאי ישראל איכא שונאי עובדי כוכבים ליכא:
Why is this stated? Is it not already said: The priest shall cause the woman to swear with the oath of cursing?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid.; this implies that she shall be for a curse and an oath. It would suffice if the verse now merely stated the curse: the Lord make thy thigh to fill away.');"><sup>37</sup></span> Because it is said: And hear the voice of alah [cursing]:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lev. V, 1; i.e., adjuration.');"><sup>38</sup></span>
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