Arakhin 55
א"ר אלעזר בן עזריה
<big><b>MISHNAH: </b></big>A MAN MAY DEVOTE<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. Lev. XXVII, 28. Whatever was devoted was considered most holy, whilst still in the owner's house, but became profane as soon as it reached the priests. Anything devoted could be neither redeemed nor sold. Ibid. 29.');"><sup>2</sup></span>
(ויקרא כז, כח) מכל אשר לו ולא כל אשר לו מאדם ולא כל אדם מבהמה ולא כל בהמה משדה אחוזה ולא כל שדה אחוזה
<big><b>GEMARA: </b></big>Whence do we know these things? - Because our Rabbis taught: Of all that he hath,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. p. 165, n. 5.');"><sup>3</sup></span>
אמר ר"א בן עזריה
One might have assumed that he may not at the outset devote [the whole], but if he had done so, it should be [considered validly] devoted, therefore it is said: Notwithstanding.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. p. 165, n. 5.');"><sup>3</sup></span>
מאדם ולא כל אדם
And if the Divine Law had but written: 'of man', [I would have said]: Because without labour none can manage,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Without servants, who do one's work, one cannot live. But one may rent out fields for labour, with part of the crop belonging to the tiller thereof.');"><sup>4</sup></span>
ואי אשמעינן הני תרתי משום דהכא חיותא והכא חיותא אבל מטלטלין ליחרמינהו כולהו צריכי
And if [the Divine Law] had taugh us about these two, [I would have said: The reason in both these cases] is that each is vitally necessary, but as for movable property, let him be allowed to devote it all,' therefore it was necessary [to teach about that as well].
בהמה למה לי
Why was 'or beast' necessary? - In accordance with what was taught: One might have assumed that a man may devote his son or daughter, his Hebrew manservant or his field or purchase, therefore it is said: 'or beast', i.e., just as the beast is something he may sell, so [may he devote] only such things as he is permitted to sell.
לכדתניא
But as he is permitted to sell his minor daughter, I might therefore think that he can devote her as well, therefore it is said: 'or beast', i.e., just as a beast is something which he may sell for ever, [s he devote only such objects] as he is permitted to sell for ever.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Excluding his daughter, whom he may sell only whilst she is a minor.');"><sup>5</sup></span>
יכול יחרים אדם בנו ובתו עבדו ושפחתו העבריים ושדה מקנתו
R'ELEAZAR B. AZARYAH SAID: IF EVEN TO THE HIGHEST NO ONE IS PERMITTED etc. But that is exactly what the first Tanna has said? - The difference between them is implied in what R'Ela said; for R'Ela said: In Usha they ordained that one who would distribute [his possessions] must not go beyond one fifth [of them].<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. Keth. 50a.');"><sup>6</sup></span>
אמר רבי אלעזר בן עזריה
<big><b>MISHNAH: </b></big>IF ONE DEVOTES HIS SON OR HIS DAUGHTER,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' The minor children could be sold by their father only whilst they are minors. The Hebrew slave, manservant or maidservant, are the property of their owner only during a limited number of years. The field acquired by purchase, too, can be held only for a limited time, reverting, as it does to its original owner, in the year of Jubilee. Hence all these things or persons cannot be devoted, devotion implying in perpetuity.');"><sup>7</sup></span>
אמר רבי
But surely the last part [of this Mishnah] reads: RABBI SAYS: THE WORDS OF R'JUDAH ARE ACCEPTABLE IN CASES OF IMMOVABLE PROPERTY, AND THE WORDS OF R'SIMEON IN CASES OF MOVABLE PROPERTY; it follows that R'Simeon refers to immovable property too? - This is what he means: Rabbi said, The words of R'Judah are acceptable to R'Simeon in cases of immovable property, for R'Simeon disputes his view only in cases of movable property, but in cases of immovable property he consents.