ז בהמה למה לי לכדתניא יכול יחרים אדם בנו ובתו עבדו ושפחתו העבריים ושדה מקנתו תלמוד לומר בהמה מה בהמה יש לו רשות למוכרה אף כל שיש לו רשות למוכרה
7 Why was 'or beast' necessary? - In accordance with what was taught: One might have assumed that a man may devote his son or daughter, his Hebrew manservant or his field or purchase, therefore it is said: 'or beast', i.e., just as the beast is something he may sell, so [may he devote] only such things as he is permitted to sell. But as he is permitted to sell his minor daughter, I might therefore think that he can devote her as well, therefore it is said: 'or beast', i.e., just as a beast is something which he may sell for ever, [s he devote only such objects] as he is permitted to sell for ever.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Excluding his daughter, whom he may sell only whilst she is a minor.');"><sup>5</sup></span> R'ELEAZAR B. AZARYAH SAID: IF EVEN TO THE HIGHEST NO ONE IS PERMITTED etc. But that is exactly what the first Tanna has said? - The difference between them is implied in what R'Ela said; for R'Ela said: In Usha they ordained that one who would distribute [his possessions] must not go beyond one fifth [of them].<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. Keth. 50a.');"><sup>6</sup></span> It happened that one wanted to distribute more than one fifth, and his colleagues would not permit him to do so. Who was that?