Musar על כתובות 220:15

We can now understand why we are told in Ketuvot 110b that "anyone who resides outside the Holy Land is compared to someone who has no G–d, whereas anyone who resides in the Holy Land is comparable to someone who has a G–d." Why would the Talmud say that someone who resides in ארץ ישראל is only “compared” to someone who has a G–d? Surely he does have a G–d The first half of the statement quoted is not difficult, since, though of course, G–d is omnipresent, He is manifest only in the Holy Land. Therefore, the Talmud does not say that someone who resides in חוץ לארץ does not have a G–d, but that he only does not appear to have a G–d. However, the second half of that statement surely presents us with a problem? The answer lies in the very word דומה, used by the Talmud. This word can mean "is comparable,” but it could also mean "appears as", "it is apparent." The Talmud clearly uses the word in the latter sense. By living in the Holy Land, a person demonstrates (makes it apparent) that he thinks G–d's Presence there is manifest. He includes himself amongst those who wish to serve as a מרכבה for G–d.